Friday 2 April 2004 8.47am
FWIW, I'd go strongly with the theory that if you accept that "text" can be used as a verb that takes an object (e.g. "I am will text you later") then it is VERY likely to follow that the past tense of that verb is "texted" (e.g. "Did you get those details? I texted them to you last night.")
I think that (given what a new word it is), it is very unlikely that the past tense of the verb to text has an irregular ending (based on an assertion that irregular endings are there either because the verb in question is from an old irregular root - e.g. Latin irregular verbs where the past participle takes a v different form that the present tense - or that it had been in use in our language for a very long time - i.e. long enough for the past tense to have been adapted to become irregular through use and/or dialect). This leads me to back the theory that, if you accept "text" as a verb, then it's past tense should be "texted".
I'm a bit old-fashioned though, and really I don't want to accept that "text" should be a verb anyway, in any tense.
Post edited (02 Apr 04 09:10)
...there's plenty more c**** in the cup.